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  Instrument Rating
  test bank contains questions pertaining to 
  Approach Charts and Procedures
  . The following list contains only a relatively small percentage of the pertinent 
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  the questions of the 
  Instrument Rating
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    | Sample Questions 
      from the FAA 
      Instrument Rating
      Test Bank |  | 
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval ofWhen simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
(Refer to figure 129.)
What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050�?Upon what maximum airspeed is the instrument approach criteria for a helicopter based?
(Refer to figure 130.)
How does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?While flying a 3� glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted?
(Refer to figure 134.)
Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2 bar VASI?
(Refer to figure 73.)
After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"?When may you obtain a contact approach?
(Refer to figure 135.)
Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
(Refer to figure 136.)
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5�?What international Morse Code identifier is used to identify a specific interim standard microwave landing system?
(Refer to figure 29.)
Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?
(Refer to figures 36A.)
What is the minimum number of way points required for the complete RNAV RWY 33 approach procedure including the IAFs and missed approach procedure?
(Refer to figure 108.)
Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wing-tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a left hand arc with a left crosswind component?
(Refer to figure 124.)
The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn in bound (LOC RWY 35) Duncan/Halliburton, is initiated is determined by
(Refer to figure 133.)
How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the in bound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the three IAFs are not utilized?(Refer to figures 44 and 49.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International?
(Refer to figure 60A.)
What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
(Refer to figure 73.)
What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
(Refer to figure 126.)
If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should
(Refer to figure 130.)
What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY/GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?
(Refer to figure 130.)
How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the S LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional?
(Refer to figure 127.)
If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to
Category A aircraft
Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet
(Refer to figure 133.)
Why are two VOR/LOC receivers recommended to obtain an MDA of 1,160 when making an S LOC 9 approach to Riverside Municipal?(Refer to figure 131.) The control tower at BOS reports 'tall vessels' in the approach area. What are the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R straight-in approach minimums for Category A aircraft.Aircraft approach categories are based on(Refer to figure 120.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude isWhat are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
(Refer to figure 128.)
What is the helicopter landing minimum for the VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport?
(Refer to figure 118.)
During the ILS RWY 12L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?
(Refer to figure 128.)
What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?
(Refer to figure 68.)
Upon which maximum airspeed is the COPTER VOR/DME 117� approach category based?
(Refer to figure 49.)
You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054� radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior toWhat facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums?After being handed off to the final approach controller during a 'no gyro' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns
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Why is there a note stating a temperature limitation for executing this approach with BARO-VNAV equipment?     The 
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