| The FAA
Airline Transport Pilot
test bank contains questions pertaining to
Approach Charts and Procedures
. The following list contains only a relatively small percentage of the pertinent
questions. Our software, which you are free to download now at no cost, will
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Airline Transport Pilot
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| Sample Questions
from the FAA
Airline Transport Pilot
Test Bank |
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 88 and 89.)
Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.)
Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 90.)
What is the landing distance on an icy runway with reversers inoperative at a landing weight of 125,000 pounds?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 91.)
How much more runway will be used to land with 0� flaps rather than 15� of flaps at a landing weight of 126,000 pounds?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.)
What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-5?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.)
What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-5?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.)
What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-5?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.)
What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-5?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73 and 75.)
What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 93.)
What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3� glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds?
- Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
- Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
- How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
- Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?
- To at least which altitude AGL is the approach azimuth guidance angle coverage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
- In addition to basic information, what expansion capabilities does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) have?
- What does operational flexibility of the Microwave Landing System (MLS) include?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 104.)
Using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 9,000 as specified on the SID?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.)
Which approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP.DOWNE3 Arrival with LAX as the destination?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.)
If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 110 and 112.)
How should the pilot identify the position to leave V369 for the Cugar Four Arrival?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 112.)
How should the pilot identify the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RWY 32R?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 118A.)
Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft equipped with DME on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach are
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 122.)
At what altitude and indicated airspeed would you expect to cross PIVOT INT on the approach to ORD?
- (Refer to appendix 2, figure 122, and appendix 1, legend 9.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?
- When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
- How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?
- What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
- What is the purpose of REIL?
- What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 133 and appendix 1, legend 22.)
To which stations, if any, must TD corrections be made to the aircraft LORAN receiver before executing the LORAN RNAV RWY 15 approach to the Burlington Intl Airport?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 134.)
What is the final approach fix for the CONVERGING ILS RWY 9R approach procedure?
- When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?
- What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?
- What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?
- While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?
- When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?
- How should a pilot describe braking action?
- When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too
- What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?
- Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
- Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
- When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 97.)
How can the FAF on the RNAV RWY 32 approach at BUF be identified?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 111 and 112.)
Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 32R?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 118A.)
What is the HAT a Category B aircraft may descend to if the pilot has identified HADEN INT on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 161A.)
The distance from Canarsie (CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 172A.)
The airport diagram of Greater Buffalo Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located close to the end of RWYs 14 and 32. What do these symbols indicate?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 182A.)
EAB 90 is a "CAT B" aircraft and received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY 09R approach, to circle to land RWY 27R. The Baldn fix was received. What are the minimums?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 198A.)
The highest terrain shown in the planview section of the LOC-B approach to Eagle County Regional is
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 207, and 207A.)
Due to weather PTL 55 was unable to land at SFO. PTL 55 was given radar vectors to COMMO Intersection and clearance to fly the ILS RWY 11 approach at Oakland Intl. What frequencies will PTL 55 use for Oakland Tower and Oakland Ground Control?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 214, and 182A.)
TNA 90 is a "CAT C" aircraft and has received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY 09R; Baldn fix is received and TNA 90 is cleared to land 09R. What are the minimums?
- The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than
- When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have
- Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:
- What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?
- An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
- In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?
- The 'runway hold position' sign denotes
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.)
What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-1?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.)
How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross weight?
- What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.)
PTL 55 received the following clearance from SFO Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R. 1.3 times the VSO speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.)
What is VREF +10 for Operating Conditions L-4?
- If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?
- The maximum speed and obstacle clearance surface (OCS) that a "Copter GPS" standard instrument departure (SID) or departure procedure(DP) is based upon is
- Which color on a tri-color VASI is a 'high' indication?
- Which 'rule-of-thumb' may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3� glidepath?
-
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 123.)
You receive this ATC clearance:
``...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
- An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
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